Clerical Cadre (Clerk) Recruitment Exam., 2009 Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge : Solved Paper
1. A keyboard is this kind of device—(A) black
(B) input
(C) output
(D) word Processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. IT stands for—
(A) information Technology
(B) integrated Technology
(C) intelligent Technology
(D) interesting Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ?
(A) Personal Computers
(B) Supercomputers
(C) Laptops
(D) Notebooks
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a—
(A) disk
(B) data
(C) file
(D) floppy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as—
(A) pulling
(B) pushing
(C) downloading
(D) transferring
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ?
(A) Disk drive
(B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor
(D) Printer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and software.
(A) computer Scientist
(B) computer sales representative
(C) computer consultant
(D) corporate trainer
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ?
(A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor
(B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor
(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor
(D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a—
(A) title bar
(B) button
(C) dialog box
(D) window
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected.
(A) pointer
(B) menu
(C) icon
(D) button
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. An error is also known as—
(A) bug
(B) debug
(C) cursor
(D) icon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. Arithmetic Operations—
(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item
(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order
(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. Sending an e-mail is similar to—
(A) picturing an event
(B) narrating a story
(C) writing a letter
(D) creating a drawing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
15. Promotion in Marketing means—
(A) passing an examination
(B) elevation from one grade to another
(C) selling the products through various means
(D) selling the product in specific areas
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
16. Microsoft Word is an example of—
(A) an operating system
(B) a processing device
(C) application software
(D) an input device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
17. Sources of Sales Leads are—
(A) Data Mining
(B) Market Research
(C) Media Outlets
(D) Promotional Programs
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as—
(A) storage
(B) output
(C) input
(D) information
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. Which part of the computer displays the work done ?
(A) RAM
(B) printer
(C) monitor
(D) ROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is—
(A) to watch TV serials
(B) to discuss with other sales persons
(C) to monitor media outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
21. Market Expansion means—
(A) hiring more staff
(B) firing more staff
(C) buying more products
(D) buying more companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a—
(A) program
(B) command
(C) user response
(D) processor
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. Effective marketing helps in—
(A) developing new products
(B) creating a competitive environment
(C) building demand for products
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Programs
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A Call in Marketing means—
(A) to phone the customers
(B) to visit the customers
(C) to visit the marketing site
(D) to call on prospective customers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. Delivery Channel means—
(A) maternity wards
(B) handing over the products to the buyers
(C) places where products are made available to the buyers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. Processing involves—
(A) inputting data into a computer system
(B) transforming input into output
(C) displaying output in a useful manner
(D) providing relevant answers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking.
(A) All the customers
(B) All the educated customers
(C) All the computer educated customers
(D) Only creditors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)
29. Innovation mean—
(A) Product Designing
(B) New ideas
(C) Impulse
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan.
(A) All the customers
(B) Students
(C) Only poor students
(D) Students having promising educational track record
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)
31. Service after sale is not the function of—
(A) Marketing staff
(B) Seller
(C) Director of the company
(D) Employees of the company
(E) All of the above are wrong
Ans : (A)
32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective.
(A) fairs
(B) village fairs
(C) door to door campaign
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
33. Market Survey means—
(A) Market Research
(B) Market Planning
(C) Marketing Strategies
(D) Market Monitering
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
34. ………can be done through digital Banking ?
(A) Mobile phone
(B) Internet
(C) Telephone
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities ?
(A) Devotion to the work
(B) Submissive
(C) Sympathy
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
36. The rural marketing is not required because—
(A) rural people do not understand marketing
(B) its not practical from the cost point of view
(C) it is sheer wastage of time
(D) All are wrong
(E) All are correct
Ans : (D)
37. Planned-cost service means—
(A) Costly products
(B) Extra profit on the same cost
(C) Extra work by seller
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
38. Internet marketing means—
(A) Self-marketing
(B) Core Groups monitering
(C) Employees marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
39. The aim of successful marketing is—
(A) to increase the sale
(B) to increase the profit
(C) to increase the output of sellers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. The networking becomes……through networking.
(A) very difficult
(B) dull
(C) easy
(D) has no role in marketing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Bank of India Clerk Exam., 2008
(Held on 22-6-2008)
Test–III
1. Very often we read about financial inclusion in newspapers these days. Financial Inclusion means—
(A) Providing loans to all eligible persons
(B) Creating a mechanism of providing financial help to business people of society whenever they are in need of the same
(C) Providing banking services to all those who are staying in remote and interior areas of the country
(D) To ensure that each and every person pays tax on his/her income regularly and honestly
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. ‘Mid Day Meals’ is a scheme to provide nutritious food to—
(A) Those taking treatment in hospitals
(B) School going children
(C) Daily wage employees/or labours
(D) Labours engaged in jobs in unorganized sectors
(E) Girls who are residing in girls/youth hostels
Ans : (B)
3. The Govt. of India is running a National Programme to control which of the following disease ?
(A) Renal Failures
(B) Heart Ailments
(C) Cancer (D) AIDS
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is aimed at the education of which of the following ?
(A) Engineering and technical education
(B) Education of girls upto graduation level
(C) College education
(D) Adult education
(E) Education of children between 6-14 years
Ans : (E)
5. Five year plans in India are designed and launched by which of the following organizations ?
(A) Ministry of Rural Development
(B) Ministry of Agriculture
(C) Panchayat Raj Samitees of each state
(D) Planning Commission of India
(E) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (D)
6. Which of the following Ministries prepares its own budget and presents it in the Parliament every year ?
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Railway Ministry
(C) Ministry of Defence
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. Which of the following banks is a nationalized bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) Yes Bank
(C) Saraswat Co-op. Bank
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) Bank of India
Ans : (E)
8. Which of the following types of accounts are known as ‘Demat Accounts’ ?
(A) Accounts which are Zero Balance Accounts
(B) Accounts which are opened to facilitate repayment of a loan taken from the bank. No other business can be conducted from there
(C) Accounts in which shares of various companies are traded in electronic form
(D) Accounts which are operated through internet banking facility
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. Which of the following is definitely a major indication of the state of the economy of a country ?
(A) Rate of GDP growth
(B) Rate of inflation
(C) Number of Banks in a country
(D) Stock of foodgrains in a country
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. Which of the following taxes levied by the Govt. of India is withdrawn now ? (As announced in Union Budget 2008–09)
(A) Income Tax
(B) VAT
(C) Corporate Tax
(D) Banking Cash Transaction Tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. Sakhalin oilfields are located in—
(A) China
(B) Russia
(C) France
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. Twenty 20 Cricket Matches are very popular these days. What is the format of the game ?
(A) Every player has to play 20 balls only
(B) Every team has to play 20 overs only
(C) Every team will now have twenty players
(D) The team who makes maximum runs in 20 hours will be the winner
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. Which of the following countries won the finals of under 19 Cricket World Cup held in March 2008 ?
(A) South Africa
(B) India
(C) England
(D) New Zealand
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
14. Who amongst the following presented the Union Budget 2008-09 in the Parliament ?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Mr. Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(D) Mr. Arjun Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
15. Late Benazir Bhutto was the—
(A) Present President of Pakistan
(B) Former President of Pakistan
(C) Present Prime Minister of Pakistan
(D) Former Prime Minister of Pakistan
(E) Present Foreign Minister of Pakistan
Ans : (D)
16. If you visit the branch of a bank you will normally not see a department/section/counter names as —
(A) Cash
(B) Credit
(C) Customer care
(D) Housekeeping
(E) Retail Banking
Ans : (D)
17. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the National Knowledge Commission ?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Mr. Arjun Singh
(C) Dr. Pranav Mukherjee
(D) Justice Arijit Pasayat
(E) Mr. Sam Pitroda
Ans : (E)
18. Which of the following phenomenon has created a state of anxiety in the economic and financial sector in India these days ?
(A) Rate of Inflation
(B) Sub-prime crisis in USA
(C) High level of fluctuation in Sensex
(D) Population growth in Metro cities in India
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. Name of Ishant Sharma is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Chess
(C) Cricket
(D) Football
(E) Badminton
Ans : (C)
20. Which of the following programmes is launched to develop basic infrastructure in the country ?
(A) Bharat Nirman programme
(B) Technology Mission
(C) Special Economic Zones
(D) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
21. Which of the following is permanent venue of International Film festivals in India ?
(A) Goa
(B) Pune (Maharashtra)
(C) Jaipur (Rajasthan)
(D) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. Foreign investments in India are normally known as—
(A) CII
(B) FDI
(C) SFI
(D) SME
(E) MDI
Ans : (B)
23. Which of the following is a computer package for preparing / typing letters / documents ?
(A) Word
(B) Excel
(C) PowerPoint
(D) Windows
(E) Unix
Ans : (D)
24. ‘Duleep Trophy’ is associated with the game of—
(A) Badminton
(B) Hockey
(C) Football
(D) Cricket
(E) Chess
Ans : (D)
25. Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Social Service
(B) Sports
(C) Classical Dance
(D) Music
(E) Literature
Ans : (E)
26. Which of the following organizations is a popular name in the field of computer & softwares ?
(A) Rotman
(B) Henley
(C) Microsoft
(D) Louis Vuitton
(E) DLA Piper
Ans : (C)
27. King of which of the following countries has to leave as the country has adopted parliamentary form of democratic govt. and first election has taken place ?
(A) Jordan
(B) Bhutan
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. For applying for this project, the applicants were required to—
(A) Send physical applications
(B) Apply on-line
(C) Buy scannable form and send after filling
(D) Send only Demand Draft
(E) Apply in employment exchange
Ans : (B)
29. ‘Dyanchand Trophy’ is associated with the game of—
(A) Golf
(B) Cricket
(C) Football
(D) Tennis
(E) Hockey
Ans : (E)
30. Who amongst the following is a famous Lawn tennis player ?
(A) Irfan Khan
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Sujata Sharma
(D) Kiran Desai
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. Which of the following bills was placed in the Parliament recently after a waiting period of several years ?
(A) Women’s Reservation Bill
(B) Financial Inclusion Bill
(C) Income Tax Amendment Bill
(D) Companies Amendment Bill
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Business at the Speed of Thought’ ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) Ritu Beri
(D) Bill Gates
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
33. Govt. normally does not announce the support price of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Mango
(D) Sugar cane
(E) Cotton
Ans : (C)
34. Mr. Dmitry Medvedev has become the new—
(A) Prime Minister of Russia
(B) President of Russia
(C) Prime Minister of France
(D) President of France
(E) Prime Minister of Italy
Ans : (B)
35. If you visit USA you have to make all your payments in—
(A) Euro
(B) Dollar
(C) Rupee
(D) Pound Sterling
(E) Any one of these
Ans : (B)
36. Census in India is done after a period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 7 years
(C) 8 years
(D) 10 years
(E) 12 years
Ans : (D)
37. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following services ?
(A) Telecom
(B) Trade
(C) Port
(D) Transport
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Firewalls are used to protect against—
(A) Unauthorised Attacks
(B) Virus Attacks
(C) Data Driven Attacks
(D) Fire Attacks
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
39. The ………… directory is mandatory for every disk.
(A) Root
(B) Base
(C) Sub
(D) Case
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. ‘WWW’ stands for—
(A) World Word Web
(B) World Wide Web
(C) World White Web
(D) World Work Web
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
41. For applying for this project, the applicants were required to—
(A) Pay fee by Cheque
(B) Pay fee by Demand Draft
(C) Pay fee by Postal Order
(D) No fee/postage was required to be paid
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
42. Which of the following is NOT associated with Computers ?
(A) Bit
(B) Binary
(C) Pencil
(D) Mouse
(E) Screen
Ans : (C)
43. ‘MICR’ technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to—
(A) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(B) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(C) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(D) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
44. Modern Computers represent characters and numbers internally using one of the following number systems—
(A) Penta
(B) Octal
(C) Hexa
(D) Septa
(E) Binary
Ans : (E)
45. Smallest storage unit of a computer is—
(A) Bit
(B) Byte
(C) Nibble
(D) Pixel
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
46. A MODEM is connected in between a telephone line and a—
(A) Network
(B) Computer
(C) Communication Adapter
(D) Serial Port
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)
47. Window is ………… and Window 95, Window 98 are …………
(A) Graphical User Interface, Operating System
(B) Graphics Useful Interface, Executing Systems
(C) Graph User Interval, Expert Systems
(D) Graphical Use Interphase, Excel Systems
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. Which of the following best explains e-governance ?
(A) Improving the functioning of Government
(B) Teaching Government employees the basics of computing
(C) Delivery of public services through internet
(D) Framing of cyber-laws of chatting on internet
(E) Convergence of e-mail and videoconferencing
Ans : (C)
49. ‘Buy Now–Pay Now’ is commonly used for………
(A) Visa Cards
(B) Vault Cards
(C) Credit Cards
(D) E-purse
(E) Debit Cards
Ans : (A)
50. Smart Card is………
(A) Special purpose Cards
(B) Microprocessor Cards
(C) Processing unit contains memory for storing data
(D) Processing unit for software handling
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Questions on Computer Awareness have recently been introduced in most Bank Recruitment exams. To help you prepare better for the Bank exams we present to you the revision notes on Computer Awareness.
1. The earlier computers, which were massive in size, were based on vacuum tubes.
2. Early computing machines, like the ENIAC, were actually meant to assist the armed forces.
3. The printers in pre-1950s were punch cards.
4. An improvement on the ENIAC, which pioneered 'stored program', was made possible with the help of the mathematician John von Neumann.
5. Before the 1950s, computers were mostly owned by universities and research labs.
6. The B-programming language was developed by Ken Thompson.
7. Famous people, associated with the ENIAC, EDVAC, UNIVAC computers are Eckert & Mauchly.
8. The 1st commercially produced and sold computer (1951) was UNIVAC.
9. IBM was provided software for PCs by Microsoft.
10. Time-sharing, teletyping, were associated with mainframe computers.
11. The transformation from heavy computers to PCs was made possible using microprocessors.
12. The first microprocessor was developed in 1971 by Intel.
13. The term 'micro' (extremely small) denotes 10-6 m.
14. The Harvard student, who chose to write computer programs and dropped studies was Bill Gates.
15. A pentium 4 (P-4) employs roughly 40 million transistors.
16. Mark-1, Apple-1, and collossus were initial desktop computers.
17. Binary digits are briefed as bit.
18. A collection of bits is called byte.
19. C++, is a computer language.
20. The process of eliminating programming faults is called debugging.
21. Starting up on operating system is called booting.
22. A program used to browse the web is called browser.
23. An error in software designing which can even cause a computer to crash is called bug.
24. Click and double-click are achieved using the mouse.
25. Java, C, ForTran, Pascal and BASIC are computer programming languages.
26. The device which sends computer data using a phone line is called MODEM.
27. 'Worm' and 'virus' are actually programs.
28. A 'file' is a unit of information.
29. A megabyte has 106 (million) bytes.
30. A small, single-site network is called LAN.
31. A processor that collects several data and sends them over a single line is called bridge.
32. 'Nano' stands for one billionth part.
33. The number of bit patterns using an n-bit code is 2n.
34. The part of a computer that works with the data/programs is called CPU.
35. To convert a binary number to a decimal, we have to express it in power of 2.
36. www stands for world wide web.
37. Mathematics employed in computers is called Boolean algebra.
38. A collection of 8 bits is called byte.
39. The first home computer (1977), which was sold in millions of units was Apple II.
40. 'PARAM' is a supercomputer.
41. A website containing periodic posts is called blog.
42. While cutting and pasting, the cutitem is temporarily stored in the clipboard.
43. http stands for hyper text transfer protocol.
44. The unwanted or non-requested emails are called "spam".
45. A computer framed to give various network services is called server.
Computer General Knowledge for Bank P.O. & Clerk Exams
1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
Ans : B
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
Ans : A
3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
Ans : B
4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an item’s tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
Ans : A
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics.
D. animation.
Ans : C
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
D. storing the data or information
Ans : C
7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of the animal’s movements.
A. POS
B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
Ans : B
8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually. This technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
Ans : A
9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
Ans : A
10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Ans : A
11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Ans : D
12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information
Ans : D
13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
Ans : B
14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output
D. store
Ans : B
15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of the picture is considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
Ans : B
16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.
A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
Ans : C
17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:
A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
Ans : D
18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters.
D. eight bits.
Ans : D
19. The term bit is short for:
A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
Ans : C
20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Ans : B
21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.
A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte
D. megabyte
Ans : C
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.
A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
Ans : C
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
Ans : A
24. The components that process data are located in the:
A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.
Ans : C
25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:
A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
Ans : D
26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
Ans : A
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:
A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
Ans : B
28. The ____________, also called the “brains” of the computer, is responsible for processing data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
Ans : D
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:
A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
C. storage device.
D. output device.
Ans : B
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.
Ans : A
31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
Ans : B
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and ____________ software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. application
Ans : D
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
Ans : A
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different operating systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
Ans : C
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
D. client.
Ans : A
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
D. mainframes
Ans : D
37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
Ans : B
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.
A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
D. broadband
Ans : D
39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
C. Web divide.
D. broadband divide.
Ans : A
40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Ans : A
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
A. Process à Output à Input à Storage
B. Input à Outputà Process à Storage
C. Process à Storage à Input à Output
D. Input à Process à Output à Storage
Ans : D
42. ____________ bits equal one byte.
A. Eight
B. Two
C. One thousand
D. One million
Ans : A
43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1,000
D. 1
Ans : B
44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.
A. bit
B. binary digit
C. character
D. kilobyte
Ans : C
45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.
A. The platform
B. The operating system
C. Application software
D. The motherboard
Ans : B
46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software
Ans : C
47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
A. Servers
B. Embedded computers
C. Robotic computers
D. Mainframes
Ans : B
48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called:
A. instructions.
B. the operating system.
C. application software.
D. the system unit.
Ans : A
49. The two broad categories of software are:
A. word processing and spreadsheet.
B. transaction and application.
C. Windows and Mac OS.
D. system and application.
Ans : D
50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit.
B. CPU.
C. mainframe.
D. platform.
Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2008
Computer General Knowledge : Solved Paper
(Held on 30-08-2008)
1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.
(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)
12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Ans : (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
Ans : (C)
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
(A) Multitasking
(B) Streamlining
(C) Multiuser
(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.
(B) event.
(C) interrupt.
(D) activity.
Ans : (C)
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack
(D) event
Ans : (B)
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
20. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
23. The definition of thrashing is:
(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
27. The following message generally means:
(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Ans : (B)
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)
Allahabank Bank Probationary Officers Exam , 2008
Computer General Awareness : Solved Paper
(Held on 17-08-2008)
1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better integration and share common features , toolbars and menus are known as ....
(A) software suites
(B) integrated software packages
(C) software processing packages
(D) personal information managers
(E) none of these
Ans : (A)
2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by the end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____
(A) hackers
(B) spam
(C) viruses
(D) identify theft
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems .
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.
(A) five
(B) six
(C) seven
(D) eight
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer's hardware devices and ______ software to work together.
(A) management
(B) processing
(C) utility
(D) application
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. The following are all computing devices , except.........
(A) notebook computers
(B) cellular telephones
(C) digital scanners
(D) personal digital assistants
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data
(A) packet
(B) data
(C) access method
(D) token
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ____
(A) basic input/output system
(B) secondary input/output system
(C) peripheral input/output system
(D) marginal input/output system
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a meAns : by which users can interact with the computer
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ___________
(A) mainframe
(B) network
(C) supercomputer
(D) client
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exists
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. URL stands for ........
(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. A database management system (DBMS) is a ............
(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ?
(A) Capture , process and store transactions
(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy
(B) information overload
(C) duplicate data
(D) data inconsistency
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user's computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
23. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A goal of normalization is to __________
(A) minimize the number of relationships
(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
(D) hacker
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as .....
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
32. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) registers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
36. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) command - based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) system utility
(D) API
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
37. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) documentation
(B) programming
(C) technical
(D) user
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
38. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. Making a field ______ meAns : that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
41. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.
(A) Debugging
(B) Compiling
(C) Testing
(D) Running
(E) None pf these
Ans : ()
42. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
43. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.
(A) open-source
(B) Microsoft
(C) Windows
(D) Mac
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
44. What is a backup?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a system's information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database
(B) character, record, field, database, file
(C) character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
46. The internet is ......
(A) a large network of networks
(B) an internal communication system for a business
(C) a communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
47. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
48. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
49. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration
(B) accessibility
(C) authentication
(D) logging in
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
50. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Andhra Bank Marketing Associates, (IInd Shift) Exam., 2009
(Held on 5-7-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–8) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Center for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided.
“This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century,” said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper’s lead author. “But, if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change”, he added.
Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantlycarbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a preindustrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
To examine the impact of such cuts on the world’s climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with the NCAR-based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast, emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team’s results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0•6 degrees Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2•2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 450 ppm would have other impacts, according to the climate modeling study.
Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimetres (about 5•5 inches) instead of 22 centimetres (8•7 inches). Also, Arctic ice in the summertime wouldshrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking atleast three-quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half.
1. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions ?
(A) As global warming is not an issue of concern
(B) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change
(C) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts
(D) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. What would not be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ?
(A) Temperatures will stop soaring
(B) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace
(C) The rise in sea level would be lesser
(D) All of the above would be the impact
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the end of this century ?
1. Global temperatures would increase by 0•6 degrees Celcius.
2. Arctic warming would be reduced by half.
3. Thermal expansion will stop completely.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) All the three 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the threat of climate change” ?
(A) Climate change can be stopped completely
(B) Climate change can be regularized
(C) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively
(D) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies ?
(A) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about 1 degree
(B) So that they could stabilize the climate change
(C) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions
(D) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
6. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions ?
(A) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2•2 degrees Celsius
(B) The sea-level would rise by about 5•5 inches
(C) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100
(D) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage ?
(A) A study of the rise in water level
(B) A study of rise in temperatures
(C) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions
(D) A study of the Arctic region
(E) A study of change in seasons
Ans : (C)
8. Which of the following statements is true in context of the passage ?
(A) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm
(B) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
(C) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during the pre-industrial era
(D) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed inbold as used in the passage.
9. predominantly
(A) clearly
(B) aggressively
(C) mainly
(D) firstly
(E) faintly
Ans : (C)
10. massive
(A) tall
(B) tough
(C) total
(D) little
(E) severe
Ans : (A)
11. shrink
(A) contract
(B) physician
(C) wither
(D) shrivel
(E) reduce
Ans : (E)
12. dramatic
(A) unprecedented
(B) thrilling
(C) spectacular
(D) effective
(E) feeble
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. opposed
(A) resistant
(B) against
(C) favouring
(D) similar
(E) agree
Ans : (D)
14. diminished
(A) created
(B) rose
(C) increased
(D) lessen
(E) finished
Ans : (C)
15. significant
(A) substantial
(B) miniscule
(C) incoherent
(D) unimportant
(E) irrelevant
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No Correction is Required, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time for celebration.
(A) go so well
(B) going so well
(C) gone as well
(D) going as well
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (B)
17. The ban was imposed by the state’s commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie.
(A) had threats of burning
(B) had threated to burn
(C) had threatened to burn
(D) had threatened to burning
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)
18. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in school and college, will inauguratethe match tomorrow in Pune.
(A) will be inaugurate
(B) is inauguration
(C) will inaugurating
(D) is inaugurate
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)
19. At a musical night organised for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang beautifully and made the evening truly memorable.
(A) come forward
(B) come to the fore
(C) came to the forth
(D) came to the fore
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)
20. Although scared of heights, she gather all her courage and stood atop the 24-storey building to participate in the activities.
(A) gathered all her courage
(B) gathered all courageous
(C) gather all courageous
(D) is gathered all courage
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
21. Along with a sharp rise in ……, a recession would eventually result in more men, women and children living in ……
(A) crime, apathy
(B) fatalities, poor
(C) deaths, slums
(D) unemployment, poverty
(E) migrations streets
Ans : (D)
22. Behaving in a …… and serious way, even in a …… situation, makes people respect you.
(A) calm, difficult
(B) steady, angry
(C) flamboyant, tricky
(D) cool, astounding
(E) silly, sound
Ans : (A)
23. An airplane with …… passengers on board made an unscheduled …… as the airport to which it was heading was covered with thick fog.
(A) irritable, slip
(B) faulty, stop
(C) variety, halt
(D) tons, wait
(E) numerous, landing
Ans : (C)
24. The government has …… to provide financial aid to the ones …… by severe floods in the city.
(A) desired, troubled
(B) promised, havoc
(C) failed, affected
(D) wanted, struck
(E) decided, ill
Ans : (C)
25. Deemed universities …… huge fees, but have not been successful in providing …… education to our students.
(A) collect, maintaining
(B) pay, better
(C) ask, good
(D) charge, quality
(E) demand, quantitative
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. In turn the buyer is called the franchisee.
2. These two parties are called the franchisor and franchisee.
3. This means that it gives permission for the buyer to use its name and sell its products.
4. He pays money to the franchisor, and agrees to obey the rules the franchisor makes.
5. A franchising agreement includes two parties.
6. The franchisor is the business house/entity which grants the franchisee license.
26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)
27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
29. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
31. The angry at being (A) / left out of the bonanza (B) / is palpable among (C) / employees of the organization. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
32. There are just too few trains (A) / for the ever-grow (B) / number of passengers (C) / in the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
33. If all goes well, (A) / the examination scheduled for next month (B) / is all set to be completely free (C) / from annoying power cuts and disruptions. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
34. His comments came after (A) / the research group said that its (B) / consumer confidence index were (C) / slumped to its lowest level. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
35. The buzz at the party was (A) / that a famous (B) / filmstar and politician, would (C) / probable drop by for a while. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
36. The President has denied (A) / that the economy is in recession (B) / or was go into one (C) / despite a spate of downcast reports. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
37. Aggression in some teenage boys (A) / may be linkage to overly (B) / large glands in their brains, (C) / a new study has found. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
38. The opposition disrupted proceedings (A) / in both Houses of Parliament (B) / for the second consecutive day (C) / above the plight of farmers in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
39. In response to the growing crisis (A) / the agency is urgently asking for (B) / more contributions, to make up for (C) / its sharp decline in purchasing power. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
40. The tennis player easy through (A) / the opening set before her opponent, (B) / rallied to take the final two sets (C) / for the biggest victory of her young career. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has beennumbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
In economics, the term recession generally describes the reduction of a country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for atleast two quarters. A recession is …(41)… by rising unemployment, increase in government borrowing, …(42)… of share and stock prices and falling investment. All of these characteristics have effects on people. Some recessions have been anticipated by stock market declines. The real-estate market also usually …(43)… before a recession. However real-estate declines can last much longer than recessions. During an economic decline, high …(44)… stocks such as financial services, pharmaceuticals and tobacco …(45)… to hold up better. However when the economy starts to recover growth, stocks tend to recover faster. There is significant disagreement about how health care and utilities tend to …(46)….
In 2008, an economic recession was suggested by several important indicators of economic downturn. These …(47)… high oil prices, which led to …(48)… high food prices due to a dependence of food production on petroleum, as well as using food crop products such as ethanol and biodiesel as an …(49)… to petroleum and global inflation; a substantial credit crisis leading to the drastic bankruptcy of large and well …(50)… investment banks as well as commercial banks in various, diverse nations around the world; increased unemployment and signs of contemporaneous economic downturns in major economies of the world, a global recession.
41. (A) visualized
(B) characterized
(C) imagined
(D) depict
(E) shown
Ans : (B)
42. (A) decrease
(B) abundance
(C) increase
(D) variance
(E) more
Ans : (A)
43. (A) strengthens
(B) volatile
(C) weakens
(D) initiates
(E) awakens
Ans : (C)
44. (A) result
(B) payment
(C) maintained
(D) yield
(E) heavy
Ans : (D)
45. (A) yearn
(B) made
(C) are
(D) want
(E) tend
Ans : (E)
46. (A) increased
(B) fight
(C) distribute
(D) recover
(E) wait
Ans : (D)
47. (A) included
(B) encompass
(C) meant
(D) show
(E) numbered
Ans : (A)
48. (A) healthy
(B) nutritious
(C) fearful
(D) dangerous
(E) abnormally
Ans : (E)
49. (A) element
(B) integral
(C) alternative
(D) variant
(E) substitute
Ans : (C)
50. (A) created
(B) established
(C) wealthy
(D) costly
(E) stand
Ans : (B)
Alphabetical Test
1. If the following series is written in the reverse order and the alternate letter are deleted from it then which letter will divide the new series in two equal parts?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) N
(B) P
(C) L
(D) M
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. If alternate letters are deleted from the following series then which letter will divide the new series in two equal parts?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) N
(B) M
(C) K
(D) O
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. If the second half of the series is written in the reverse order then which will be the 9th letter to the right of 7th letter from your left ?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) Y
(B) Z
(C) P
(D) X
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. If first half of the following series is written in the reverse order the which will be 7th letter to the left of 10th letter from your right?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) E
(B) D
(C) A
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. In the following series which is the 5th letter to the left of 14th letter from your right?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) I
(B) L
(C) J
(D) K
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
6. In the following series which is the 8th letter to the right of 16th letter from your left ?
ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) K
(B) Y
(C) X
(D) W
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
7. If first half of the following series is written in the reverse order, which will be the 5th letter to the left of 13th letter from your right?
ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) S
(B) E
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. If the second half of the following series is written in the reverse order, which will be the 7th letter to the left of 23rd letter from your left?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) L
(B) Y
(C) X
(D) P
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. If the second half of the following series is written in the reverse order then which will be the 18th letter to the left of 10th letter from your left?
ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) R
(B) I
(C) V
(D) U
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. In the following series if 4–4 letters from left are written in the reverse order then which will be the 8th letter to the left of 10th letter from your right?
ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) Y
(B) Z
(C) L
(D) K
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. In the following series which will be the 7th letter to the left of 10th letter from your left?
ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ.
(A) C
(B) E
(C) X
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
12. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word SERVANT having the same no. of letters left between them in the word as they have in the series?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word MONKEY having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
14. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word SMUGGLER having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
15. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word BONAFIDE having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
16. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word FRONTIER having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
17. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word MINISTER having same no. of letters left between them at they have in the series?
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word PERFUMERY having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series?
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word DOCUMENTARY having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from first, fifth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word ECCENTRICITY then which will be the third letter of that word? If it is possible to make more than one word then answer will be M and if the word formation is not possible then the answer will be X.
(A) E
(B) R
(C) N
(D) M
(E) X
Ans : (C)
21. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from first, second, fourth and fifth letters of the word FALSEHOOD then which will be the third letter from right? Give your answer M if more than one word can be formed and if no word can be formed then give your answer X.
(A) F
(B) A
(C) E
(D) X
(E) M
Ans : (B)
22. If first letter is interchanged by sixth letter, second by seventh and so in the word INTERVOLVE then which will be the sixth letter from your right in the new word' ?
(A) L
(B) E
(C) V
(D) O
(E) I
Ans : (B)
23. If first letter is interchanged by second, third by fourth, fifth by sixth and so on in the word HABILITATE then which will be the 8th letter from your left in the new word?
(A) L
(B) E
(C) T
(D) A
(E) B
Ans : (C)
24. If the following words are arranged according to the dictionary order then which word will come in the middle?
(A) Gunny
(B) Gunnery
(C) Gunmetal
(D) Gunpowder
(E) Gunsmith
Ans : (A)
25. If the following words are arranged according to the dictionary order then which will be the second word in that order?
(A) Expound
(B) Exposure
(C) Expulsion
(D) Expose
(E) Export
Ans : (D)
Coding—Decoding Test
1. If KEDGY is coded as EKDYG then how will LIGHT be coded ?
(A) ILHTG
(B) ILGHT
(C) ILGTH
(D) THGIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. If RAVE is coded as SXWB then how will SCAW be coded ?
(A) TDBO
(B) TZBK
(C) PZXK
(D) TVXK
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. If SPANK is coded as PSNAK then how will THROW be coded?
(A) HTORW
(B) HTWOR
(C) HTWRO
(D) HTRWO
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. If UDOMETER is coded as DUMOTERE then how will SUBLEASE be coded?
(A) USLBESAE
(B) USLBAEES
(C) USBAELES
(D) USLBEAES
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. If PURSER is coded as UPSRRE then how will PERIODIC be coded?
(A) EPRIDOIC
(B) PEIRDOCI
(C) EPIRDOCI
(D) EPIRODCI
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. If STRAY is coded as TUSBZ then how will MOURN be coded?
(A) LPVSO
(B) NPVSO
(C) NVPSO
(D) NPSVO
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. If MAGIC is coded as PXJFF then how will LEASH be coded?
(A) PBDVD
(B) OBDVL
(C) OHEOK
(D) OBDPK
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. If DOWN is coded as FQYP then how will WITH be coded?
(A) KYN
(B) JYK
(C) YKVJ
(D) JKVY
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. If BINARY is coded as DHPZTK then how will KIDNAP be coded?
(A) MKFPCQ
(B) MHFPZQ
(C) IKFMYO
(D) MHFMCO
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. If RASCAL is coded as QZRBZK then how will SOLDER be coded?
(A) RNMEDQ
(B) RPKEDS
(C) TPMEFS
(D) RNKCDQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. If SAVOURY is coded as OVUARSY then how will RADIATE be coded?
(A) AIDARET
(B) IDARA TE
(C) ARIADTE
(D) IDAATRE
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
12. If MAPLE is coded as VOKZN then how will CAMEL be coded?
(A) OVNZF
(B) OUNZX
(C) OVNZX
(D) XZNVO
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. If CRY is coded as MRYC then how will GET be coded?
(A) MTEG
(B) MGET
(C) MEGT
(D) METG
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. If BURNER is coded as CASOIS then how will ALIMENT be coded?
(A) BKJLFMU
(B) EKOLIMS
(C) EMONIOU
(D) BRJSFTU
(E) EROSITU
Ans : (C)
15. If Sand is coded as Brick, Brick as House, House as Temple, Temple as Palace then where do you worship?
(A) Palace
(B) Temple
(C) Brick
(D) House
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. If Rajdoot is coded as Car, Car as Aeroplane, Aeroplane as Train, Train as Bus, then by which vehicle can you reach your destination in least time? .
(A) Aeroplane
(B) Train
(C) Car
(D) Bus
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
17. If Pen is coded as Pencil, Pencil as Chalk, Chalk as Slate, Slate as Paper, then by which do you mostly write?
(A) Pen
(B) Pencil
(C) Chalk
(D) Slate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
18. If Leader is coded as Actor, Actor as an Administrator, Administrator as a Traitor, Traitor as a Social-reformer, then who takes part in the Parliamentary elections?
(A) Administrator
(B) Leader
(C) Traitor
(D) Social-Reformist
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
19. If '245' means—'Art and Talent' in a certain code language, '316' means— 'Callous to Generous', '147' means— 'Callous and Polite' then what is the code used for 'to' ?
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 1
(C) 3 or 6
(D) Only 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. In a certain code language '579' means—'Kanchan is soft-spoken', '694' means—‘Soft-spoken beautiful pure', '473' means—‘Ganga is pure', then what is the code used for 'Kanchan' ?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 9
(D) Can not be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21. In a certain code language '123' means—‘Mahendra is Able', '345' means—'Sunita is unlucky', '526' means—'Mahendra was unlucky', then what is the code used for unlucky?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) Can not be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
22. In a certain code language '765' means—'Man Illness Hard-working', '478' means—'Illness Hard Blood-Pressure', '826' means—'Blood-pressure Lazy Hard-working', then
(I) For which word code '8' has been used?
(A) Illness
(B) Man
(C) Hard
(D) Blood-Pressure
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
(II) Which code has been used for 'Hardworking' ?
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 6 or 5
(E) 7 or 5
Ans : (B)
(III) Which code has been used for 'Lazy' ?
(A) 2
(B) 6 or 2
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 6 or 5
Ans : (A)
23. If '678' means—'Society Family Husbandry', '574' means—'Husbandry Health Control', '342' means—'Health Census shop', then—
(I) Which code has been used for 'Health' ?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
(II) Which code has been used for 'Census' ?
(A) 3 or 2
(B) 3 or 7
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)
(III) For which word code '6' has been used?
(A) Society
(B) Family
(C) Husbandry
(D) Society or Family
(E) None of these'
Ans : (D)
24. If 'KRN' means—'Callous collission life', 'RTP' means—'Life very sad', 'NPD' means—'Collission sad future' then what is the code used for 'Callous' ?
(A) R
(B) N
(C) K
(D) Can not be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
25. If 'MLT' means—'Day is clear', 'LKS' means—'Life is sad', 'SMMO' means—'Clear or sad', then what is the code used for 'Day' ?
(A) T
(B) K
(C) MO
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Spotting out the Dissimilar
Directions—In each of the following questions one word is different from the rest. Find out the word which does not belong to the group—
1. (A) BFD
(B) NRP
(C) HLG
(D) QUS
(E) UYW
Ans : (C)
2. (A) GTSH
(B) BYXC
(C) ETUF
(D) LONM
(E) KPIR
Ans : (C)
3. (A) PQ
(B) CD
(C) MN
(D) DF
(E) RS
Ans : (D)
4. (A) HB
(B) ZU
(C) NI
(D) TO
(E) PK
Ans : (A)
5. (A) CEI
(B) QSX
(C) JLP
(D) QSW
(E) MOS
Ans : (B)
6. (A) ZXVT
(B) SQOM
(C) ECBA
(D) UHF
(E) DBTR
Ans : (C)
7. (A) KMNO
(B) ABDE
(C) PRST
(D) UWXY
(E) QSTU
Ans : (B)
8. (A) BC
(B) FG
(C) KL
(D) PQ
(E) TV
Ans : (E)
9. (A) KLM
(B) NPR
(C) BCD
(D) RQP
(E) HGF
Ans : (B)
10. (A) ML
(B) TS
(C) FG
(D) PO
(E) XW
Ans : (C)
11. (A) NMLK
(B) RQPO
(C) UTSR
(D) WXUV
(E) EDCB
Ans : (D)
12. (A) ACEG
(B) MOQS
(C) GHJL
(D) RTVX
(E) KMOQ
Ans : (C)
13. (A) CE
(B) HK
(C) SQ
(D) MN
(E) WZ
Ans : (D)
14. (A) BCB
(B) DED
(C) ABA
(OJ KLL
(E) MNM
Ans : (D)
15. (A) BCD
(B) NPR
(C) KLM
(D) RQP
(E) HGF
Ans : (B)
16. (A) MOQ
(B) GEC
(C) SUW
(D) PRT
(E) TVX
Ans : (B)
17. (A) AG
(B) IO
(C) PV
(D) QW
(E) SY
Ans : (C)
18. (A) EQL
(B) BHF
(C) KTI
(D) SXD
(E) JWM
Ans : (D)
19. (A) ACDB
(B) MOPN
(C) SVUT
(D) QSTR
(E) JLMK
Ans : (C)
20. (A) Printer
(B) Author
(C) Publisher
(D) Correspondent
(E) Reader
Ans : (E)
21. (A) FLOK
(B) CROWD
(C) HERD
(D) SWARM
(E) TEAM
Ans : (E)
22. (A) Jupiter
(B) Sky
(C) Star
(D) Moon
(E) Sun
Ans : (B)
23. (A) Sofa
(B) Bed
(C) Diwan
(D) Chair
(E) Table
Ans : (B)
24. (A) Cheese
(B) Butter
(C) Ghee
(D) Milk
(E) Curd
Ans : (D)
25. (A) Ginger
(B) Tomato
(C) Carrot
(D) Beet
(E) Potato
Ans : (B)
Analogy Test
1. As 'Wheel' is related to 'Vehicle' similarly 'Clock' is related to what?
(A) Needle
(B) Nail
(C) Stick
(D) Pin
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. As 'Plateau' is related a 'Mountain', similarly 'Bush' is related to what?
(A) Plants
(B) Field
(C) Forest
(D) Trees
(E) Stem
Ans : (C)
3. As 'Astronomy' is related to 'Planets', similarly 'Astrology' is related to what?
(A) Satellites
(B) Disease
(C) Animals
(D) Coins
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
4. As 'Earthquake' is related to 'Earth', similarly 'Thundering' is related to what?
(A) Earth
(B) Sea
(C) Fair
(D) Sky
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. As' Author' is related to 'Writing', similarly 'Thief is related to what?
(A) To night
(B) To feel
(C) To steal
(D) To wander
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. As 'Magazine' is related to 'Editor' in the same way 'Drama' is related to what?
(A) Hero
(B) Heroine
(C) Co-actor
(D) Villain
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
7. As 'Steal' is related to 'Factory' in the same way 'Wheat' is related to what?
(A) Field
(B) Sky
(C) Godown
(D) Market
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. As 'Cricket' is related to 'Bat' in the same way, 'Tennis' is related to what?
(A) Game
(B) Stick
(C) Court
(D) Hand
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
9. As 'Football' is related to 'Field' in the same way, 'Tennis' is related to what?
(A) Court
(B) Net
(C) Field
(D) Racket
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. As 'Tennis' is related to 'Racket' in the same way 'Hockey' is related to what?
(A) Ball
(B) Stick
(C) Field
(D) Player
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. As 'Mosque' is related to 'Islam' in the same way 'Church' is related to what?
(A) Hinduism
(B) Sikhism
(C) Christianity
(D) Buddhism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. As 'Hindu worshiper' is related to 'Temple' in the same way 'Maulvi' is related to what?
(A) Monastery
(B) Church
(C) Mosque
(D) Sikh temple
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. As 'Hungry' is related to 'Food' in the same way 'Thirsty' is related to what?
(A) Drink
(B) Tea
(C) Coffee
(D) Juice
(E) Waler
Ans : (E)
14. As 'Fly' is related to 'Parrot' in the same way 'Creep' is related to what?
(A) Snake
(B) Rabbit
(C) Fish
(D) Crocodile
(E) Sparrow
Ans : (A)
15. As 'Needle' is related to 'Thread' in the same way 'Pen' is related to what?
(A) Word
(B) To write
(C) Cap
(D) Ink
(E) Paper
Ans : (D)
16. As 'Circle' is related to 'Circumference' in the same way 'Square' is related to what?
(A) Diagonal
(B) Perimeter
(C) Circumference
(D) Area
(E) Angle
Ans : (B)
17. As 'Bell' is related to 'Sound' in the same way 'Lamp' is related to what?
(A) Flame
(B) Light
(C) Wick
(D) Oil
(E) Gong
Ans : (B)
18. As 'Oil' is related to an 'Oilman', in the same way 'Milk' is related to what?
(A) Water
(B) Blacksmith
(C) Shoemaker
(D) Milkman
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. As 'Furniture' is related to 'Bench' in the same way 'Stationary' is related to what?
(A) Godown
(B) Room
(C) Pen
(D) Chair
(E) Office
Ans : (C)
20. CTPN: DSQM : : MUSK: ?
(A) NVTL
(B) NITJ
(C) NTTL
(D) LTRJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Series Completion Test
Directions—In each of the following questions a series is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question-mark (?) ?
1. JD, KF, ?, PM, TR
(A) MI
(B) NJ
(C) NI
(D) OJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. BTO, DSQ, FRS, HQU, ?
(A) IPX
(B) JPW
(C) GPW
(D) JRW
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. B, D, G, K, P, ?
(A) U
(B) W
(C) T
(D) X
(E) None of the»e
Ans : (E)
4. Z, T, O, K, H, ?
(A) E
(B) J
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. HZF, IWH, KSJ, NNL, ?
(A) SHM
(B) RHN
(C) THN
(D) RGM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. MR, PO, SL, VI, ?
(A) YF
(B) ZE
(C) YD
(D) ZF
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. LOT, NNR, QMO, ULK, ?
(A) YKE
(B) YJF
(C) JKF
(D) JKE
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. CG, GH, LJ, RM, ?
(A) ZR
(B) YR
(C) ZQ
(D) YQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. FRP, HPQ. JNS, LLV, ?
(A) PKZ
(B) NJZ
(C) OJZ
(D) MKZ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
10. Z15A, W13C, ?, Q9G, N7I.
(A) T12F
(B) R11F
(C) T11E
(D) R13D
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. MN, NM, MNO, ONM, MNOP, ?
(A) NPOM
(B) POMN
(C) MOPN
(D) PONM
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
12. CVD, CTE, DQE, DMF, EHF, ?
(A) ECG
(B) FCG
(C) EBG
(D) FBG
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. JKL, LKJ, JKLM, MLKJ, JKLMN, ?
(A) LMJKN
(B) NLMKJ
(C) NMUK
(D) NMLKJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, ?
(A) 17E4
(B) 18F5
(C) 17E3
(D) 18D4
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—In each of the following questions one number-series is given in which one term is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
15. 5, 7, 11, 20, 35, 67.
(A) 11
(B) 20
(C) 35
(D) 67
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. 4, 11, 21, 34, 49, 69,91.
(A) 34
(B) 69
(C) 49
(D) 21
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. 5, 12, 19, 33, 47, 75, 104.
(A) 33
(B) 47
(C) 75
(D) 104
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—In each of the following questions a number-sereis is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question mark (?) ?
18. 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?
(A) 169
(B) 159
(C) 119
(D) 139
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. 0, 7, 26, 65, 124, 215, ?
(A) 305
(B) 295
(C) 342
(D) 323
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. 4, 7, 10, 10, 16, 13, ?
(A) 19
(B) 23
(C) 21
(D) 22
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ?
(A) 52
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 48
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. 2, 11, 47, 191, 767, ?
(A) 2981
(B) 3068
(C) 3081
(D) 3058
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Directions—In each of the following questions a letter-series is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative.
23. mno—p—no—p—n—opm.
(A) opmno
(B) pmomn
(C) pmmpn
(D) nmopo
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. ba—abab—b—ba—aba.
(A) abab
(B) aabb
(C) baab
(D) bbaa
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
25. —acca—ccca—acccc—aaa.
(A) caac
(B) ccaa
(C) acca
(D) caaa
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Arranging in Order
1. If the position of Rajan is 15th from one end and 13th from the other end in his class, what is the total number of students in his class? .
(A) 28
(B) 24
(C) 27
(D) 29
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. The position of Shyamal is 13th from the last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is his position from the beginning?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 7th
(D)) 10th
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. In the class of 40 students, if Sanju is at 30th place from one end, what is his position from the other end?
(A) 9th
(B) 12th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. In a row of girls, Nivedita is 15th from the left and Vimla is 23rd from the right. If they interchange their positions, then Nivedita becomes 18 th from the left. Then at what position will Vimla be from the right?
(A) 25th
(B) 24th
(C) 26th
(D) 20th
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. In a row of ladies Manorama is 20th from the right and Kanta is 10th from the left. When they interchange their positions Manorama becomes 25th from the right. What is the total number of ladies in the row ?
(A) 35
(B) 34
(C) 44
(D) 24
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. A number of people are standing in a row in which Kailash is 20th from the left and Hemant is 25th from the right. If they interchange their positions then Kailash becomes 25th from the right. How many people are there in the row?
(A) 49
(B) 44
(C) 45
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. In a row of boys, Udai is 23rd from the left and Ashok is 8th from the right. When they interchange their positions Udai becomes 18th from the right. What will be the position of Ashok from the left ?
(A) 15th
(B) 10th
(C) 40th
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. Five members of a family, Rakesh, Mukesh, Roopesh, Vipul and Umesh take food in a definite order—
(1) Umesh was next to first man.
(2) Roopesh took food after the man who was before Vipul.
(3) Rakesh was the last man to take food.
(a) Who were the first and last men to take food?
(A) Mukesh and Roopesh
(B) Roopesh and Rakesh
(C) Umesh and Mukesh
(D) Mukesh and Rakesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
(b) Who were those two men who took food in order between Mukesh and Vipul ?
(A) Umesh and Rakesh
(B) Rakesh and Roopesh
(C) Umesh and Roopesh
(D) Can not be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a circular path who are facing the centre. R is third from P in the right. Q is third from T in the left. U is between P and T and S is third from U in the left right.
(a) Who is opposite to T ?
(A) S
(B) Q
(C) P
(D) U
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
(b) What is the order of the six people from the left ?
(A) SQRUTP
(B) TSRQUP
(C) SRTUPQ
(D) SQPUTR
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
(c) What is the order of the six people from the right?
(A) PQRSTU
(B) SQPUTR
(C) SPQRUT
(D) SRTUPQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
(d) Who are between S and U?
(A) Only T
(B) P and R
(C) Q and T
(D) Q and R
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. Nikhilesh is taller than Arvind who is taller than Mahendra. Naresh is smaller than Suresh but taller than Nikhilesh. Who is the smallest?
(A) Nikhilesh
(B) Arvind
(C) Mahendra
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. Ram is taller than Shyam. Rahim is taller than Ram. Karim is taller than Shokat but smaller than Shyam. Who is the tallest?
(A) Rahim
(B) Ram
(C) Karim
(D) Shyam
(E) Shokat
Ans : (A)
12. Five boys Mahendra, Anjani, Anil, Anand and Alok are sitting in a row. Neither Anil is neighbour of Anand nor of Anjani. Mahendra is not the neighbour of Anjani. Anil is the neighbour of Alok. If Alok is just in the middle, who is the neighbour of Mahendra?
(A) Anand
(B) Alok
(C) Anil
(D) Anjani
(E) Can not be determined
Ans : (C)
13. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajal and Vimal. Who is the tallest?
(A) Karishma
(B) Kajal
(C) Ankita
(D) Can not be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. If in a class of 37 students the places of Anuradha and Saroj are 10th and 16th respectively, what are their places from the last?
(A) 28th and 22nd
(B) 27th and 21st
(C) 28th and 20th
(D) 27th and 22nd
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
15. In a class of 65 boys the position of Mohan is 33th. If the last boy is given the first position then on this basis what is the position of Mohan?
(A) 32nd
(B) 33rd
(C) 34th
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Direction Sense Test
1. Ramesh starting from a fixed point goes 15 km towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. Then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point?
(A) 5 metres
(B) 10 metres
(C) 20 metres
(D) 15 metres
(E) Can not be determined
Ans : (B)
2. Sonalika goes 12 km towards North from a fixed point and then she goes 8 km towards South from there. In the end she goes 3 km towards east. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?
(A) 7 km East
(B) 5 km West
(C) 7 km West
(D) 5 km North-East
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Sunita goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes 15 km. After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in what
direction is she from her starting point?
(A) 45 km, East
(B) 15 km, East
(C) 45 km, West
(D) 45 Km, North
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. Kanchan goes 5 m towards east from a fixed point N and then 35 km after turning to her left. Again she goes 10 metres after turning to her right. After this she goes 35 m after turning to her right. How far is she from N ?
(A) 40 m
(B) At N
(C) 10 m
(D) 15 m
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. Shri Prakash walked 40 metres facing towards North. From there he walked 50 metres after turning to his left. After this he walked 40 metres after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from his starting point?
(A) 40 m, North
(B) 50 m, West
(C) 10 m, East
(D) 10 m, West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes 7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house?
(A) 14 km
(B) 7 km
(C) 2 km
(D) 5 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Nivedita stops after going 10 km towards west from her office. Then she goes 8 km turning to her left. After this she goes 4 km turning to her left. How far is she from her office?
(A) 18 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 16 km
(D) 14 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
8. Ranju is at a fixed point, from where she goes 20 metres towards West. From there she goes 10 metres towards Notrh. Then she goes 35 metres towards East and after this she goes 5 metres towards South and in the end she goes 15 metres towards West. How far is she from the fixed point?
(A) 5 km
(B) 0 km
(C) 10 km
(D) Can not be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
9. A man walks 15m towards South from a fixed point. From there he goes 12 m towards North and then 4 m towards West. How far and in what direction is he from the fixed point?
(A) 3 m, South
(B) 7 m, South-West
(C) 5 m, South-West
(D) 5 m, South-East
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point?
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. Raman walks 100 m from his house towards North. From there he goes 100 m towards West. Here is the house of Shyam. From there they both goes to the market which is in the South-West direction from Shyam's house. If the market is in the West of Raman's house, then how far is the market from Raman's house?
(A) 100 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 400 m
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
12. Ranjan goes 5 km towards North from a fixed point. Then he goes 3 km after turning to his right. After this he goes 5 km turning to his right. In the end he goes 4 km after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from the fixed point?
(A) 4 km, West
(B) 7 km, East
(C) 9 km, East
(D) 7 km, West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
In which following city, Summit of Foreign Ministers of SAARC nations took place in February 2009 ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Kathmandu
(D) Colombo
Ans : (D)
2. As per RBI released data; India’s foreign exchange reserves at the end-March 2009 stands at—
(A) $ 252•0 billion
(B) $ 247•64 billion
(C) $ 314•60 billion
(D) $ 318•80 billion
Ans : (A)
3. As per the report on State of Forest released on February 13, 2008, what is the percentage coverage of forest area in the total geographical area of the country ?
(A) 22•20%
(B) 21•30%
(C) 20•60%
(D) 19•90%
Ans : (C)
4. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—
(A) Y. S. P. Thorat
(B) Vijai L. Kelkar
(C) T. S. Vijayan
(D) Laxmi Narayan
Ans : (C)
5. SEBI is a—
(A) Statutory body
(B) Advisory body
(C) Constitutional body
(D) Non-statutory body
Ans : (A)
6. Bank Cash Transaction Tax (BCTT) has been withdrawn w.e.f.—
(A) January 1, 2009
(B) March 1, 2009
(C) March 31, 2009
(D) April 1, 2009
Ans : (D)
7. When was the SAARC established ?
(A) On December 8, 1984
(B) On January 1, 1984
(C) On December 8, 1985
(D) On January 1, 1985
Ans : (C)
8. What is the present number of member countries of European Economic Community ?
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C) 25
(D) 20
Ans : (B)
9. Which Committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under section 88 ?
(A) Chelliah Committee
(B) Kelkar Committee
(C) Shome Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
10. Which of the following countries is not the members of European Union ?
(A) Switzerland
(B) Malta
(C) The Czeck Republic
(D) Poland
Ans : (A)
11. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to—
(A) Communication
(B) Social Integration
(C) Linking of Rivers
(D) Development of Highways
Ans : (D)
12. ‘Sagarmala’ is a name associated with—
(A) A drilling vessel
(B) A project of port development
(C) Oil well in Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
13. Tarapore Committee submitted its report on “Full Convertibility on Rupee” in—
(A) Current account
(B) Capital account
(C) Both in current as well as in capital account
(D) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Ans : (B)
14. The repo rate w.e.f. April 21, 2009 stands at—
(A) 4•5%
(B) 4•75%
(C) 5•0%
(D) 5•25%
Ans : (B)
15. Airport Development Fees (ADF) has been imposed at Delhi & Mumbai airports to be paid by passengers w.e.f.—
(A) January 1, 2009
(B) March 1, 2009
(C) April 1, 2009
(D) May 1, 2009
Ans : (C)
16. CENVAT is related to—
(A) Sales Tax
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Custom Duty
(D) Service Tax
Ans : (B)
17. Aam Admi Bima Yojana provides social security to—
(A) All labours in rural areas
(B) All landless labours living below poverty line in rural areas
(C) All labours in urban areas
(D) All labours in both rural as well as urban areas
Ans : (B)
18. According to 2001 census urbanrural population ratio is about—
(A) 35 : 65
(B) 32 : 68
(C) 28 : 72
(D) 25 : 75
Ans : (C)
19. Asian Development Bank has approved an additional $ 71 million loan to the water project associated with the state—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (B)
20. According to 2001 census the state having highest urban population is—
(A) U.P.
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
Ans : (B)
Deductive Logic
In each question of the following two statements are given and four conclusions I, II, III and IV are given under them. The given statements may be contrary to the universal opinion, even then you have to assume them as true. Then decide which conclusion on the basis of given statements is logically valid.
1. Statements: All kings are beggars.
All beggars are monks.
Conclusions :
I. All beggars are kings.
II. All kings are monks.
III. Some monks are beggars.
IV. No monk is beggar.
(A) Only I comes
(B) All come
(C) Only II and III come
(D) Only III and IV come
(E) None of these comes
Ans : (C)
2. Statements: All boxes are benches.
All boxes are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. All benches are chairs.
II. All benches are boxes.
III. Some benches are chairs.
IV. Some chairs are boxes.
(A) All
(B) Only I and III
(C) Only II and IV
(D) Only III and IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Statements: All labourers are wrestlers.
All grocers are labourers.
Conclusions:
I. All grocers are wrestlers.
II. Some wrestlers are grocers.
III. Some wrestlers are labourers.
IV. Some labourers are grocers.
(A) All
(B) Only I and IV
(C) Only IV
(D) Only II and III
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. Statements: All sages are kind.
All artists are kind.
Conclusions:
I. All sages are artists.
II. All artists are sages.
III. Some kind (persons) are sages.
IV. Some kind (persons) are artists.
(A) Only III and IV
(B) All
(C) Only II and III
(D) Only IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. Statements: All kings are clever.
Some foolish (persons) are kings.
Conclusions:
I. All foolish (persons) are clever.
II. Some foolish (persons) are clever.
III. Some clever (persons) are foolish.
IV. Some kings are foolish.
(A) Only I and III
(B) Only II, III and IV
(C) All
(D) Only III and IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Statements: All pen are books.
Some pencils are not books.
Conclusions:
I. Some pencils are not books.
II. Some books are not pencils.
III. Some books are pen.
IV. All pencils are pen.
(A) Only I and III
(B) All
(C) Only II and III
(D) Only I, II and III
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. Statements: All things are clad.
Some things are not odd.
Conclusions:
I. Some clad (objects) are things.
II. Some odds are not things.
III. Some odds are not clad.
IV. Some clad (objects) are not odd.
(A) Only I
(B) All
(C) Only III and IV
(D) Only II and III
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
8. Statements: All horses are elephants.
Some elephants are not camels.
Conclusions:
I. Some elephants are horses.
II. Some camels are not elephants.
III. Some horses are not camels.
IV. Some elephants are not horses.
(A) Only I and IV
(B) Only II
(C) All
(D) Only III and IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
9. Statements: All brinjals are ladyfingers.
No brinjal is potato.
Conclusions:
I. Some ladyfingers are brinjals.
II. Some ladyfingers are not brinjals.
III. No potato is brinjal.
IV. No potato is ladyfinger.
(A) All
(B) Only I, II and III
(C) Only IV
(D) Only III and IV
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. Statements: All dancers are heroines.
No heroine is villain-actress.
Conclusions :
I. Some heroines are dancers.
II. No villain actress is heroine.
III. All dancers are villain actress.
IV. Some villain actresses are dancers.
(A) Only III and IV
(B) All
(C) Only I and III
(D) Only I and II
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Questions Related to Two Statements and Two Conclusions
In the following each question there are two statements and two conclusions I and II there-after are given. Accept the given statements as true even if they are inconsistent with known facts and ignoring the universally known facts find out which conclusion follows logically from the given statements.
Give answer (A) if only the conclusion I follows.
Give answer (B) if only the conclusion II follows.
Give answer (C) if either the conclusion I or the II follows.
Give answer (D) if neither the conclusion I nor the II follows.
Give answer (E) if the conclusions I and II both follow.
1. Statements: Some saints are Faquirs.
No Faquir is King.
Conclusions:
I. Some saints are kings.
II. No saint is king.
Ans : (D)
2. Statements: All actors are leaders.
Some leaders are deceitful.
Conclusions:
I. Some deceitful (men) are actors.
II. Some actors are not deceitful.
Ans : (D)
3. Statements: No man is crippled.
All crippled (things) are beasts.
Conclusions:
I. Some beasts are crippled.
II. Some men are beasts.
Ans : (D)
4. Statements: Some elephants are horses.
All horses are crocodiles.
Conclusions:
I. No crocodile is elephant.
II. Some elephants are crocodiles.
Ans : (B)
5. Statements: All utensils are fruits.
All fruits are sweets.
Conclusions:
I. Some sweets are utensils.
II. All sweets are utensils.
Ans : (A)
6. Statements: Some actors are emperors.
Some emperors are cruel.
Conclusions:
I. All the cruel are actors.
II. All the cruel are emperors.
Ans : (D)
7. Statements: All benches are tables.
Some tables are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. No chair is table.
II. Some chairs are table.
Ans : (D)
8. Statements: All faxes are alligators.
Some alligators are jackals.
Conclusions:
I. Some faxes are jackals.
II. All faxes are jackals.
Ans : (D)
9. Statements: Some pen are fire-works.
All fire-works are toys.
Conclusions:
I. Some toys are men.
II. Some toys are fire-works.
Ans : (E)
10. Statements: All herons are parrots.
No parrot is swan.
Conclusions:
I. No heron is swan.
II. Some swans are herons.
Ans : (A)
Blood-Relation Test
1. Introducing Priyanka, Saroj says that her mother is the only daughter of my mother. How is Saroj related to Priyanka ?
(A) Mother
(B) Sister
(C) Daughter
(D) Aunt
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. Pointing to a picture of a child Narendra says, "The brother of this child's mother, is the only son of my mother's father." How is Narendra related to the mother of the child?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Maternal grand mother
(D) Aunt
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
3. Pointing to a lady in the photograph Kaushal said, "She is the daughter of the daughter of the only son of my grand father." How is the lady related to Kaushal ?
(A) Sister
(B) Maternal aunt
(C) Niece
(D) Cousin
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. Pointing to Manju, Gaurav said, "She is the wife of the only son of my father's father." How is Manju related to Gaurav ?
(A) Mother
(B) Sister
(C) Aunt
(D) Sister-in-law
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. A lady pointing to a man in photograph says, "The father of his brother is the only son of my maternal grand father." How is the man related to that lady?
(A) Husband
(B) Son
(C) Father
(D) Maternal uncle
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
6. A lady pointing to a man in a photograph says, "The sister of the son of this man is my mother-in-law." How is the husband of the lady related to the man in the photograph?
(A) Maternal grand son
(B) Nephew
(C) Son
(D) Maternal grand father
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. Kamini says, "Rajeev's grand father is the only son of my father." How is Kamini related to Rajeev ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Niece
(D) Grand mother
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. Introducing a man, a woman says, "He is the only son of my mother's mother." How is the man related to the woman ?
(A) Uncle
(B) Father
(C) Maternal uncle
(D) Uncle
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. Pointing a woman, Mahendra says, "The only son of her mother is my father." How is Mahendra related to the woman ?
(A) Nephew
(B) Brother
(C) Son
(D) Grandson
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. Pointing to Kalpna, Arjun says, "She is the only daughter of my father-in-law." How is Kalpna related to Arjun ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Niece
(C) Wife
(D) Daughter-in-law
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. Pointing to a man Snehlata says, "He is the only son of my father's father." How is Snehlata related to the man ?
(A) Mother
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Niece
(D) Sister
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
12. Pointing to a lady in photograph, Madhurendra said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother's mother." How is Madhurendra related to the lady?
(A) Nephew
(B) Uncle
(C) Maternal uncle
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
13. If P x Q means— 'P is the brother of Q', P ÷ Q means 'P is the son of Q' and 'P – Q' means 'P is the sister of Q' , then which of the following relations will show that Q is the maternal uncle of P ?
(A) Q x R ÷ P
(B) Q ÷ R – P
(C) P x R – Q
(D) P ÷ R – Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. A lady pointing to a woman in a photograph says, "She is the only daughter of my father-in-law." How is the woman related to the lady?
(A) Mother
(B) Sister
(C) Friend
(D) Aunt
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
15. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says, "Her mother's mother is the mother of my father." How is the man related to the woman in a photograph?
(A) Uncle
(B) Maternal cousin
(C) Nephew
(D) Grand son
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Assigning Artificial Values to Arithmetical Signs
1. If x means –, – means x, + means ÷ and ÷ means + then—
13 – 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100 = ?
(A) 1/1760
(B) 76
(C) 176
(D) 186
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. If – means ÷, ÷ means –, + means x and x means +, then—
12 – 4 x 7 + 8 ÷ 5 = ?
(A) 51
(B) 45
(C) 34
(D) 64
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
3. If + means x, x means +, – means ÷ and ÷ means –, then—
16 x 2 ÷ 4 + 7 – 8 = ?
(A) 31
(B) 29/2
(C) 43/2
(D) 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. If + means ÷, ÷ means –, – means x and x means +, then—
64 + 8 ÷ 6 – 4 x 2 = ?
(A) 34
(B) 16
(C) –14
(D) 24
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. If + means –, – means x, x means ÷ and ÷ means +, then—
48 x 4 ÷ 7 + 8 – 2 = ?
(A) 3
(B) –5
(C) 35
(D) 16
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
6. If + means –, – means x, x means ÷ and ÷ means +, then—
16 ÷ 4 x 2 – 5 + 8 = ?
(A) 58
(B) 50
(C) 44
(D) 42
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
7. If + means ÷, ÷ means –, – means x and x means +, then—
12 + 2 x 9 ÷ 4 = ?
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 4
(D) 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. If + means –, – means x, x means ÷ and ÷ means +, then—
12 x 4 ÷ 12 + 5 – 3 = ?
(A) 4
(B) 15
(C) 30
(D) 17
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
9. If + means –, – means x, ÷ means +, and x means ÷, then—
25 x 5 ÷ 8 – 4 + 7 = ?
(A) 44
(B) 37
(C) 7
(D) 30
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. If + means ÷, ÷ means –, – means x and x means +, then—
20 + 5 ÷ 7 x 6 – 8 = ?
(A) 51
(B) 59
(C) 37
(D) 45
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. If 'p' means '–', 'q' means '+', 'r' means '÷' and 's' means 'x', then—
16 p 4 q 5 s 8 r 2 = ?
(A) –8
(B) 32
(C) 20
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. If + means x, – means ÷, x means – and ÷ means +, then—
2 + 15 ÷ 15 – 3 x 8 = ?
(A) 43
(B) 27
(C) 35
(D) 28
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. If + means x, ÷ means –, x means ÷ and means +, then—
5 + 12 ÷ 7 – 44 x 2 = ?
(A) 75
(B) 89
(C) 65
(D) 82
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. If + means ÷, ÷ means –, – means x and x means +, then—
9 + 3 ÷ 5 – 3 x 7 = ?
(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 25
(D) 10
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
15. If 'a' means '÷', 'b' means '+', 'c' means '–' and 'd' means 'x'. then—
11 b 15 c 8 a 4 d 5 = ?
(A) 36
(B) – 16
(C) 26
(D) 16
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
1. Who is called as ‘‘Father of Computers’’?
(A) Charles Babage
(B) Blaise Pascal
(C) Hollirth
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
2. The first Digital Computer introduced, was named as :
(A) Univac
(B) Mark-I
(C) Eniac
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
3. How many generations, computer can be classified?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) None of these
4. First Generation Computers contain :
(A) Transistors
(B) Vacume Tubes
(C) LSI
(D) VLSI
(E) None of these
5. II Generation Computers are made of :
(A) Vaccume Tubes
(B) Transistors
(C) LSI
(D) VLSI
(E) None of these
6. IV Generation Computers contain :
(A) LSI
(B) Vaccume Tubes
(C) All Technology
(D) Transistors
(E) None of these
7. Vth Generation Computers are based on:
(A) Artificial Intelligence
(B) Programming Intelligence
(C) System Knowledge
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
8. Computers, combine both measuring and counting, are called :
(A) Analog
(B) Digital
(C) Hybrid
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
9. In world today, most of the computers are :
(A) Digital
(B) Hybrid
(C) Analog
(D) Complex
(E) None of these
10. In any computer installation, how many elements consists?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Physical structure of computer is called :
(A) Software
(B) Hardware
(C) Humanware
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
12. A computer can perform, which of the following tasks?
(A) Computation
(B) Communication
(C) Processing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
13. CPU stands for :
(A) Computer Processing Unit
(B) Central Processing Unit
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Communication Processing Unit
(E) None of these
14. In which type of computer, data are represented as discrete signals?
(A) Analog computer
(B) Digital computer
(C) both
(D) Digilog Computer
(E) None of these
15. Which of the following is available in the form of a PC now?
(A) Mainframe
(B) Microcomputer
(C) Minicomputer
(D) Both (B) & (C)
(E) None of these
16. PARAM is an example of :
(A) Super computer
(B) PC
(C) Laptop
(D) PDA
(E) None of these
17. Who developed the ‘analytical engine’?
(A) Jacquard loom
(B) Charles Babbage
(C) Shannon (D) IBM
(E) None of these
18. ENIAC stands for :
(A) Electrical Numerical Integrator and Calculator
(B) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer
(C) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator
(D) Electronic Number Integrator and Calculator
(E) None of these
19. First Generation of computer was based on which technology?
(A) Transistor
(B) Vacuum Tube
(C) LSI
(D) VLSI
(E) None of these
20. Microprocessor was introduced in which generation of computer?
(A) Second Generation
(B) Fourth Generation
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Third Generation
(E) All of the above
21. GUI stands for :
(A) Graphical User Interface
(B) Graph Use Interface
(C) Graphical Universal Interface
(D) None of these
22. The time taken by CPU to retrieve and interpret the instruction to be executed is called as :
(A) Instruction cycle
(B) Fetch cycle
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following is responsible for all types of calculations?
(A) ALU
(B) Control Unit
(C) Registers
(D) BUS
(E) None of these
24. Internal memory in a CPU is nothing but :
(A) A set of registers
(B) A set of ALU
(C) Microprocessor
(D) BUS
(E) None of these
25. Which of the following is permanent memory?
(A) SRAM
(B) DRAM
(C) ROM
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Assumption Type Test
Directions—In each of the following questions one statement or advertisement is followed by two or three assumptions. On the basis of the statement choose which is/are implicit.
1. Statement—"Please issue a circular to all the officers to assemble in the Conference Hall for attending a notice." Director tells his Secretary .
Assumptions:
I. All the officers will follow the instruction.
II. Some officers may not attend the meeting.
(A) Only assumption I is implicit
(B) Only assumption II is implicit
(C) Either I or II is implicit
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit
(E) Both I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)
2. Statement—Saroj made an application to the bank for a loan of Rs. 1,80,000 by mortgaging his house to the bank and promised to repay it within five years.
Assumptions :
I. The bank has a practice of granting loans for Rs. 1,00,000/- and above.
II. The bank accepts house as collateral security against such loans.
III. The bank may grant loan to Saroj.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) Only II and III are implicit
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Statement—Training must be given to all the employees for increasing productivity and profitability.
Assumptions:
I. Training is essential component of productivity.
II. Employees can't function effectively without proper training.
III. Profitability and Productivity are supple mentary to each other.
(A) None is implicit
(B) All are implicit
(C) Only III is implicit
(D) Either I or II is implicit
(E) Both I and III are implicit
Ans : (B)
4. Statement—"We are feeling pleasure in extending the working hours of our office to 7.30 p.m." A general notice by a working office.
Assumptions :
I. It would have been done inspite of workers' opposition.
II. It was needed to extend the working hours.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Either I or II is implicit
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit
(E) Both are implicit
Ans : (B)
5. Statement—"I will like to study the effect of the revision of the pay scale on the workers job satisfaction." A said to B.
Assumptions :
I. A has the capacity to study such work.
II. It is possible to measure job satisfaction.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Either I or II is implicit
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit
(E) Both are implicit
Ans : (E)
6. Statement—"If you want to give some advertisement then give it in X-newspaper." A says to B.
Assumptions :
I. B wants to advertise his product.
II. X-newspaper is very popular.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Either I or II is implicit
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit
(E) Both are implicit
Ans : (E)
7. Statement—"We must introduce objective type tests to improve our examinations for adniission to MBA." The chairman of the Admission—Committee tells the committee.
Assumptions :
I. The admission at present is directly through the interviews.
II. The Admission—Committee is desirous of improving the admission examinations.
III. The chairman himself is an MBA.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) Only I and III are implicit
(E) None is implicit
Ans : (B)
8. Statement—"Slogans against smoking in office shoud be put on the notice board". —an employee in an office suggests.
Assumptions :
I. The employee felt that his suggestion will be considered.
II. People smoke in the office.
III. Some people will stop smoking after reading the slogans.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
(E) All are implicit
Ans : (E)
9. Statement—The residents of the locality wrote a letter to the Corporation requesting to restore normalcy in the supply of drinking water immediately as the supply at present is just not adequate.
Assumptions :
I. The Corporation may not take any action on the letter.
II. The municipality has enough water to meet the demand.
III. The water supply to the area was adequate in the past.
(A) Only II is implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) Only II and III are implicit
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
10. Statement—"Wanted a two bedroom flat in the court area for immediate possession" —Advertisement.
Assumptions :
I. Flats are available in court area.
II. Some people will respond to the advertisement.
III. It is a practice to give such advertisement.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) All are implicit
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Most Essential Component and Venn Diagram
Directions—In each of the questions from 1 to 14, five alternatives are given. One of these five shows the most essential component. Hence find out the correct answer.
1. In a desert it is necessary—
(A) Camel
(B) Sand
(C) Watermelon
(D) Wind
(E) Heat
Ans : (B)
2. It is necessary in agriculture—
(A) Labourer
(B) Land
(C) Tractor
(D) Water
(E) Seed
Ans : (B)
3. In newspaper it is necessary—
(A) Advertisement
(B) Date
(C) News
(D) Editor
(E) Article
Ans : (C)
4. In a bedstead is/are always found—
(A) Wide tape
(B) Legs
(C) Rope
(D) Mattress
(E) Bed bugs
Ans : (B)
5. It is necessarily found in game—
(A) Players
(B) Spectators
(C) Defeat
(D) Refree
(E) Victory
Ans : (A)
6. The most essential for a train is—
(A) Passenger
(B) Driver
(C) Engine
(D) Fans
(E) Guard
Ans : (C)
7. Danger always involves—
(A) Help
(B) Attack
(C) Fear
(D) Enemy
(E) Hate
Ans : (C)
8. In debate it is necessary—
(A) Speaker
(B) Audience
(C) Typist
(D) Judge
(E) Room
Ans : (A)
9. In a lady it is necessary—
(A) Beauty
(B) Height
(C) Attraction
(D) Fair complexion
(E) Intelligence
Ans : (C)
10. In election it is necessary—
(A) Conversing
(B) Poster
(C) Speech
(D) Friendship
(E) Candidate
Ans : (E)
11. What is always in worry ?
(A) Peace
(B) Difficulty
(C) Unrest
(D) Non cooperation
(E) Passion
Ans : (C)
12. Disclosure always involves—
(A) Agents
(B) Display
(C) Exposition
(D) Demonstration
(E) Secrets
Ans : (E)
13. A phrase always has—
(A) Nomenclature
(B) Manifestation
(C) Pictorial effect
(D) Glossary
(E) Question mark
Ans : (D)
14. Life of fat people is always—
(A) Much
(B) Happy
(C) Little
(D) Healthy
(E) Comfortable
Ans : (C)
Statement and Arguments
Directions—In each of the questions from 1 to 5 a statement followed by two arguments is given. You have to decide which of the given statements is a strong argument and which is weak argument. Give answer (A) if only first argument is strong, give answer (B) if only second argument is strong, give answer (C) if either first or second argument is strong, give answer (D) if neither first nor second argument is strong and given answer (E) if both first and second arguments are strong.
1. Statement—Should military training be made compulsory in our country like other countries?
Arguments :
I. Yes, every citizen has right to protect his country.
II. No, it is against the policy of non-violence.
Ans : (A)
2. Statement—Should octroi be abolished?
Arguments :
I. No, it will adversely affect government revenues.
II. Yes, it will eliminate an important source of corruption.
Ans : (E)
3. Statement—Should competitive examinations for selecting candidates for jobs, be of objective test only?
Arguments :
I. Yes, the assessment of objective test is reliable.
II. No, the number of questions to be answered is always very large.
Ans : (A)
4. Statement—Should those who receive dowry be encouraged ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, due to this, the number of those who receive dowry will decrease.
II. No, due to this the number of those who receive dowry will increase.
Ans : (B)
5. Statement—Should jobs be delinked with academic degrees and diplomas?
Arguments :
I. Yes, a very large number of candidates will apply so that the competition will be tough and the candidates will prepare more.
II. No, importance of higher education will be diminished.
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